A good friend of mine sold a older couple a car and he let them pay with a personal check. (mistake) The car went into the woman's name and the check (payment) was from her boyfriend. The next day they called saying that a stop payment was put on the check. The check had not be deposited yet. Their reasoning for the stop payment, they took it to a mechanic for inspection and he told them it may be over $500 in parts and labor to pass inspection. They don't want to pay it, they want my friend to take the car back. Obviously they don't get how the title transfer process works. He is trying to reason with them but they don't seem to understand how they're in the wrong here.
The seller has a bill of sale signed by the new owner stating that they were purchasing the car as is where is with no warranty expressed or implied. He also has a signed paper from the boyfriend who wrote the check stating that check was for the purchase of the car and that it would clear without issue.
The buyer and seller are both PA residents. I did some digging and it seems that this would be considered theft by deception and my friend is in no way obligated to cater to them in any way. Can anyone verify this? I suggested he tell them to undo the stop payment, that he won't take the car back and see what they do.
The seller has a bill of sale signed by the new owner stating that they were purchasing the car as is where is with no warranty expressed or implied. He also has a signed paper from the boyfriend who wrote the check stating that check was for the purchase of the car and that it would clear without issue.
The buyer and seller are both PA residents. I did some digging and it seems that this would be considered theft by deception and my friend is in no way obligated to cater to them in any way. Can anyone verify this? I suggested he tell them to undo the stop payment, that he won't take the car back and see what they do.
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