Figure 4 above shows the percentage of each race/ethnicity that was unarmed when killed by police from all of those killed by police by race/ethnicity. In other words, in 2015, of all the Whites killed by police, 6.04% were unarmed, in 2016 4.51% were unarmed, and in 2017, 5.69% were unarmed. In 2015, of all the Blacks killed by police, 14.67% were unarmed, in 2016 we see a significant drop to 7.30% that were unarmed when killed by police, and in 2017, 8.76% of Blacks killed by police were unarmed when killed. Of all the Blacks killed by police, a higher percentage of them are unarmed compared to Whites and Hispanics. While we see a decline from 2015, in 2017 Blacks were still 54% more likely to be unarmed when killed by police compared to Whites.
Shouldn't we look at why those numbers are happening rather than just accepting a figure w/o any factual basis to reaffirm how and why such numbers exist?